TCS Placement Paper Aptitude - General -22 Jul 2008
TCS PAPER ON 22ND JULY,2008
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning: (1) FRUGALITY (A) Foolishness (B)extremity (C)indifference (D)enthusiasm (E)economy (2) FULMINATE (A) fulfill (B)contemplate (C)talk nonsense (D)protest loudly (E)meander
(3) FUROR (A) Excitement (B)worry (C)flux (D)anteroom (E)lover
(4) FURTIVE (A) underhanded (B)coy (C)brilliant (D)quick (E)abortive
(5) GADFLY (A) humourist (B)nuisance (C)scholar (D)bum (E)thief (6) GALLEON (A) liquid measure (B)ship (C)armada (D)company (E)printer?s proof
(7) GARISH (A) sordid (B)flashy (C)prominent (D)lusty (E)thoughtful
(8) GARNER (A) prevent (B)assist (C)collect (D)compute (E)consult
(9) GARNISH (A) paint (B)garner (C)adorn (D)abuse (E)banish
(10) GARRULITY (A) credulity (B)senility (C)loquaciousness (D)speciousness (E)artistry
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning: (11) HARBINGER (A) ascetic (B)miser (C)counsellor (D)follower (E)braggart
(12) SPUR (A) embitter (B)discourage (C) impress (D)mislead (E)ignore
(13) DISJOINTED (A) responsible (B)connected (C)implied (D)useful (E)imprecise
(14) MEALYMOUTHED (A) hungry (B)indefinite (C)tightlipped (D)sincere (E)apathetic
(15) PREVARICATE (A) postulate (B)emphasize (C)support in theory (D)consider thoughtfully (E)state truthfully
(16) LUMINARY (A) impostor (B)non entity (C)pilgrim (D)braggart (E)mutineer
(17) TESTY (A) erroneous (B)uncommunicative (C) even-tempered (D)quick-witted (E)industrious
(18) NEFARIOUS (A) lackadaisical (B)eccentric (C)exemplary (D)corrigible (E)hypocritical
(19) BEGRUDGE (A) mourn silently (B)grant freely (C)hunger for (D)advance rapidly (E)fight back
(20) BILK (A) reduce in size (B)make famous (C)roughen (D)renovate (E)pay in full
Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces. Choose the sentence from the list A ? I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces. The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers. In the art of Middle Ages, we never encounter the personality of the artist as an individual; rather it is diffused through the artistic genius of centuries embodied in the rules of religious art. __B_____. The circular halo placed vertically behind the head signifies sainthood, while the halo impressed with a cross signifies divinity. By bare feet, we recognize God, the angles, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have depicted the Virgin Mary with bare feet would have been tantamount to heresy. ___F____. A tree, which is to say a single stalk with two or three stylized leaves, informs is that the scene is laid on earth. _H_____; and should an angel be watching from the battlements, that city is thereby identified as Jerusalem. Saint Peter is always depicted with curly hair, a short beard and a tonsure, __E_____. Through this system, even the most mediocre talent was elevated by the genius of the centuries. __I____. When they are not outstanding, they are scarcely able to avoid insignificance and banality in their religious works; and even when they are great __C___. A. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious at was not recognized during his lifetime B. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were settled C. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the sacred rules. D. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance E. while Saint Paul always has a bald head and along beard. F. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent water or the sea. G. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept such unstable works H. A tower with a window indicates a village. I. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements, which remain permanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions. Of these permanent gases, oxygen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen about 78 percent. Several other gases, such as argon, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon, krypton, and Xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume of dry air. The amount of water vapor and its variations in amount and distribution are of extraordinary importance in weather changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension great quantities of dust, pollen, smoke, and other impurities, which are always present in considerable, but variable amounts. The atmosphere had no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible. Until recently it was assumed that the air above the first few miles gradually grew thinner and colder at a constant rate. It was also assumed that upper air had little influence on weather changes. Recent studies of the upper atmosphere, currently being conducted by earth satellites and missile probing, have shown these assumptions to be incorrect. The atmosphere has three well-defined strata. The layer of the air next to the earth, which extends upward for about 10 miles, is known as the troposphere. On the while, it makes up about 75 percent of all the weight of the atmosphere. It is the warmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar radiation is absorbed by the earth?s surface, which warms the air immediately surrounding it. A steady decrease of temperature with increasing elevation is a most striking characteristic. The upper layers colder because of their greater distance from the earth?s surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperatures within the troposphere decrease about 3.5 degrees per 1,000-foot increase in altitude. Within the troposphere, winds and air current distribute heat and moisture. Strong winds called jet streams, are located at the upper levels of the troposphere. These jet streams are both complex and widespread in occurrence. They normally show a wave shaped pattern and move from west to east at velocities of 150mpj. But velocities as high as 400 mph have been noted. The influences of changing locations and strengths of jet streams upon weather conditions and patterns or no doubt considerable. Current intensive research may eventually reveal their true significance. Above the troposphere to a height of about 50 miles is a zone called the stratosphere. The stratosphere is separated from the troposphere by a zone of uniform temperatures called the tropopause. Within the lower portions of the stratosphere is a layer of ozone gases, which filters out most of the ultraviolet rays from the sun. The ozone layer varies with air pressure. If this Zone were not there, the full blast of the sun?s ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventually result in our destruction. Within the stratosphere the temperature and the atmospheric composition are relatively uniform. The layer upward of about 50 miles is the most fascinating but the least known of these three strata. It is called the ionosphere because it consists of electrically charged particles called ions, thrown from the sun. The northern lights(aurora borealis) originate within this highly charged portion of the atmosphere. Its effect upon weather conditions, if any, is as yet unknown. (27) Which of the following titles best summarizes the content of the passage? A.News Methods for Calculating the Composition of the Atmosphere. B.New Evidence concerning the Stratification of the Atmosphere. C.The Atmosphere: its nature and Importance to our Weather D.The underlying causes of Atmosphere turbulence E.Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere: Three Similar Zones.
(28) The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following questions? I. How do the troposphere and stratosphere differ? II. How does the ionosphere affect the weather? III. How do earth satellites study the atmosphere? (A) I Only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III
(29) According to the passage, life as we know it exists on the earth because the atmosphere. (A) Contains a layer of ozone gases. (B) Contains electrically charged particles (C) Is warmest at the bottom (D) Carries the ultraviolet rays of the sun (E) Provides the changes in weather
(30)It can be inferred from the passage that a jet plane will unusually have its best average rate of speed on its run from (A) New York to San Francisco (B) Los Angels to New York (C) Boston to Miami (D) Bermuda to New York (E) London to Washington, D.C (31)It can be inferred from the passage that at the top of Jungfrau, which is 12,000 feet above the town of Interlaken in Switzerland, the temperature is usually A.below freezing B.about 42 degrees colder than on the ground C.warmer then in Interlaken D.affected by the ionosphere E.about 75 degrees colder than in Interlaken (32)The passage states that the troposphere is the warmest part of the atmosphere because it A.is closest to the sun. B.contains electrically charges particles C.radiates heat into space D.had winds and air current that distribute the heath is warmed by the earth?s heat.
PART II Q1.Fill in the missing number in the sequence 17 16 13 12 10 ?? 8 7 (a) 13 (b)6 (c) 9 (d)11 (e)3
Q2.In the following series, how many Ys are there such that each Y is followed by an D next to it if the D is not followed by a P next to it. Y D Y P Q M Y D P M D Y D D Y Q M Y Y D Q Y D P D Y A M D Y D M (a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.If TIFMUFS is coded as SHELTER how will NJOE be coded? (a) TRIAL (b)ALERT (c) MIND (d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROPORTIONAL were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the letter that would then be the tenth letter counting from the right. (a) T (b) I (c) N (d) O (e) P Q5.In which number system would 1432 represent the decimal number 242? (a) Base - 7 (b) Base - 8 (c) Base - 5 (d) Base - 6 (e) Base ? 9 Q6.What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 7-bit word computer? (a) 121 (b) 123 (c) 111 (d) 127 (e) 129
Q7.If n = 10 x 18 x 38, which of the following is NOT an integer? (a) n / 95 (b) n / 78 (c) n / 90 (d) n / 76 (e) n / 40
Q8.Which of the following is a power of 2? a. 4148 b. 4048 c. 4198 d. 4244 e. 4096
Pick the odd one out Q9. (a) UNIX (b) WINDOWS NT (c) INGRESS (d) MVS (e) LINUX
Q10. (a) SMTP (b) HTTP (c) WAP (d) BAAN (e) ARP
Q11.The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle? (a) (50º,51º,79º) (b) (60º,90º,30º) (c) (73º,67º,40º) (d) (100º,60º,20º) (e) (70º,54º,66º)
Q12.The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the number of edges , the number of faces and the number of vertices respectively. Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube? (a) (12,6,8) (b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,12,4) (d) (6,8,6) (e) (4,6,8)
Q13.Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation? (a) -8, -8, -8, -8, -8, -8 (b) 8, -8, 8, -8, 8, -8 (c) 8, 0, -8, 8, 0, -8 (d) 8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8 (e) 8, 8, 8, 0, 8, 8
The three circles below represent the number of people eating Indian, Chinese and Continental. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
Q14. How many more (or less) people eat Chinese than people who eat Indian? (a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d) 1 (e)5
Q15. What percentage of people eating Continental also eat Indian but not Chinese. (a)16 (b)12 (c)14 (d)18 (e) 17.4
Q16. What percentage of total people eats all three items. (a)5 (b) 6 (c)7 (d)8 (e)9 The figure on the left represents number of distributors for a Company and the figure on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
Distributors (in "00s)
Q17. Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors? (a)1998 (b)1994 (c)1996 (d)1686 (e) 1888 Q18. What is the average number of distributors for 1995-1999? (a) 7700 (b) 8800 (c)6800 (d)4800 (e) 7800 Q19. If 10% of distributors in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh distributors were made in 1999? (a)4500 (b) 4600 (c)4400 (d) 4900 (e) 5400
Q20.A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as (Momentum X Velocity) / ( Force X Time ) In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed? (a) Distance (b) Power (c) Velocity (d) Time (e) None Q21.A does half as much work as B in three fourth of the time. If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how many days will B take to do it ? (a)9 (b)30 (c)24 (d)15 (e)18
Q22.Which of these matrices is singular?
12 3 2 3 4 0 18 12
A = B = C = D =
9 2 -4 6 0 4 6 4 (a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None Q23. Match the following relationships: (i) Male ? Boy (1) Not a type of (ii) Oven ? Building (2) Part of (iii) Beagle ? Dog (3) A type of (iv) Oxygen ? Water (4) Superset of (a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3 (d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2
Q24. If * stands for squaring and > stands for change of sign what is the value of * > * (3) - > * > (3)? (a)78 (b)94 (c) 90 (d)96 (e)88
Q25. A sequence is defined recursively as f(0) = 1 f(n) = f(n-1) * n2, where * stands for multiplication What will be the value of f(4)? (a)676 (b)356 (c)568 (d)576 (e)522
Q26. What curve best suits the following data:
(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex
Q27. A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly row-wise in a computer's memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X(1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X(2,3)? (a)3123 (b)3333 (c)3023 (d)3443 (e)3554 Q28. Of the four vectors A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set A = 5i+4j, B = i+j , C = 4i-5j, D = -7i+j (a)AC (b)AD (c)BC (d)BD (e)AB Q29. Evaluate the expression M(735,11) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation (a)12 (b)11 (c) 13 (d)18 (e)16
Q30. Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for power saving in a plant producing respectively 40%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net power efficiency achieved? (a) 64% (b) 55% (c) 56.8% (d) 68% (e) 78%
Q31. The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows: Hour Declination 3 7o 53? 6.1? 4 7o 39? 28.7? Find the declination of the moon at hour 2. (a) 8o 6? 43.5? (b) 7o 56? 54.5? (c) 9o 46? 33.5? (d) 7o16? 12.5? (e) 8o 39? 28.7?
Q32. What equation best describes the curve shown below: (a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = log10 x (d) y = Cos x (e) y + x = 0 Q33. The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since noon. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 3.00 PM and 9.00 PM? (a)64.6% (b) 58.6% (c)66% (d)68% (e)55%
Q34. An aircraft takes off from A (89o N Lat, 10o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32o N Lat, 70o W Long). If the flying time is 8 hours what is the local time of landing at B? (a)5.40 AM (b) 4.00 AM (c) 4.40 AM (d) 7.00AM (e) 8.00AM
Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:
(A È C ) Ç B
Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the decimal value. (a)15 (b)16 (c)18 (d)19 (e)21 Q36. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes. (a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N Q37. The size of bucket required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 ?N, where N is the volume of water. Find the percentage change in size of bucket if the volume of water is increased by 1%. (a) 0.75% (b) 0.25% (c) 2% (d) 1% (e) 0.5%
Q38. A optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river. (a) 450 (b) 1800 (c) 3900 (d) 2100 (e) 2700
END OF PART II
PART III Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage
(1)Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton Bowling Green is north of Ashland and west of Fredricktown Dover is south and east of Ashland East Liverpool is north of Fredricktown and east of Dover Fredricktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland Coshocton is south of Fredricktown and west of Dover. 1. Which of the towns mentioned is furtherest to the northwest? (A)Ashland (B)Bowling Green (C)Coshocton (D)East Liverpool (E) Fredricktown 2.Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredricktown I. Ashland II. Coshocton III. East Liverpool (A)I only (B) II only (C)III only (D) I and II (E) I and III
3.Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town? (A) Ashland only (B) Ashland and Fredricktown (C) Dover and Fredricktown (D) Dover, Coshocton and Fredricktown (E) Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool.
4.Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific? (A)Coshocton is north of Dover (B)East Liverpool is north of Denver (C)Ashland is east of Bowling Green (D)Coshocton is east of Fredricktown (E) Bowling Green is north of Fredricktown (2)Spelunkers International offers exploring tours in eight caves: Abbott, Benny, Caeser, Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Guinness and Hope. 1)Class 1 spelunkers may not attempt cave Ewell, Fields or Hope 2)Class 2 spelunkers may not attempt cave Hope 3)Class3 spelunkers may not attempt any cave 4)Cave Caesar may not be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Benny 5)Cave Fields may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave Ewell. 6)Only two caves Benny, Caesar, Ewell , Fields and Hope may be attempted by any explorer in a single tour.
1.Which tour is allowed for a class 2 spelunker who has never explored any of the eight caves before, if the caves are attempted in the order listed? (A) Abbott, Fields, Ewell, Benny (B) Dangerfield, Guinness, Caesar, Benny (C)Guiness, Ewell, Dangerfield, Benny, Abbott (D)Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Abbott, Caesar (E) Guinness, Ewell, Fields, Dangerfield, Benny.
2. A class 2 spelunker who has previously explored cave Ewell may be restricted in choosing a tour by which rule(s)? I. Rule 4 II. Rule 5 II. Rule 6 (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
3. In how many different ways may a class 1 spelunker who has never explored any of the eight caves before set up a tour of 3 caves, if she wishes to explore caves Abbott and Caesar? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6
4. What is the maximum number of caves that a class spelunker who has previously explored only cave Benny mat include in a single tour? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8
(3) Mr. Pesth , foreman for Buda Construction company is hiring 5 persons to do plumbing and wiring on a site. He must have a minimum of 2 electricians. 9 persons are sent by the union hiring hall: Mike, Nick and Olive are electricians , while Rich, Steve, Tom, Ulysses, Vic and Wassily are plumbers. Pesth is unwilling to hire Ulysses and Vic together, because he knows from past experience that they fight all the time. Steve and Tom are buddies and will only work together. Olive won?t work with Rich.
1. If Mike, Nick and Olive are hired, the team of plumbers can consist of (A) Steve and Tom only (B) Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic together. (C) Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily (D) Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily (E) Steve and Tom and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily
2. Pesth has the greatest number of choices for hiring as plumbers if the electricians he chooses are (A) Mike, Nick and Olive (B) Mike and Nick (C) Mike and Olive (D) Nick and Olive (E) Either Mike or Nick plus Olive
3. If Rich is hired, the other persons hired must be: (A) Mike, Nick, Steve and Tom (B) Mike , Nick, Olive and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily (C) Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic or Vic and Wassily (D) Mike and Nick, together with either Ulysses and Vic or Vic and Wassily. (E) Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom, Ulysses and Wassily, or Vic and Wassily.
4. Which of the following statements is true? I. If only 2 electricians are hired, the plumbers must include Steve and Tom II. If Olive is not hired, Rich must be hired. III. If either Mike or Nick is not hired, Steve and Tom must be hired. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III only (E) II and III only
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