TCS  Placement Paper   Aptitude - General   -07 Jul 2008

TCS  Placement Paper   Aptitude - General   -07 Jul 2008

  • Posted by  FreshersWorld 
    7 Jan, 2012


    For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:
    (1)   GARRULOUS
    (A) arid   (B)hasty   (C)sociable   (D)quaint   (E)talkative

    (2)   GAUCHE
    (A) rigid   (B)swift   (C)awkward   (D)taciturn   (E)needy

    (3)   GAUDY
    (A) holy   (B)showy   (C)sentimental   (D)mild   (E)whimsical

    (4)   GAUNT
    (A) victorious   (B)tiny   (C)stylish   (D)haggard   (E)nervous

    (5)   GENUFLECT
    (A) falsify   (B)trick   (C)project   (D)bend the knee   (E)pronounce correctly

    (6)   GERMANE
    (A) bacteriological   (B)middle-European   (C)prominent   (D)war-like   (E)relevant

    (7)   GERMINAL
    (A) creative   (B)excused   (C)sterilized   (D)primitive   (E)strategic

    (8)   GIST
    (A) chaff   (B)summary   (C)expostulation   (D)expiation   (E)chore

    (9)   GLIB
    (A) slippery   (B)fashionable   (C)antiquated   (D)articulate   (E)anticlimactic

    (A) Fury   (B) giant   (C) dwarf   (D) native   (E)alien

    For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
    (A) disturb (B)reveal (C)strengthen   (D)isolate   (E)prevent

    (A) determine   (B)transcend     (C)surround   (D)open   (E)regulate

    (A) extent  (B)success  (C)clarity   (D) normality  (E)expression

    (A) prevention  (B)aggravation (C)distraction   (D)indifference   (E)dissuasion

    (A) discern (B)disclose (C)introduce   (D)flatter   (E)commend

    (A) theoretical  (B)indifferent    (C)ready to believe   (D)eager for change   (E)lost in thought

    (A) experienced person (B)shy onlooker (C) social outcast  (D)fugitive   (E)adversary

    (A) boastful (B)temporary (C) cheerful  (D)refined   (E)extensive

    (A) tractable   (B)erratic (C)intuitive (D)vigorous   (E)rambling

    (A) defy (B)supplement (C)postpone   (D)shorten   (E)design

     Read the following text.  The passage contains some blank spaces.  Choose the sentence from the list A ? I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces.  The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.
    In the art of Middle Ages, we never encounter the personality of the artist as an individual; rather it is diffused through the artistic genius of centuries embodied in the rules of religious art. _______. The circular halo placed vertically behind the head signifies sainthood, while the halo impressed with a cross signifies divinity. By bare feet, we recognize God, the angels, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have depicted the Virgin Mary with bare feet would have been tantamount to heresy. ______. A tree, which is to say a single stalk with two or three stylized leaves, informs us that the scene is laid on earth. ______; and should an angel be watching from the battlements, that city is thereby identified as Jerusalem. Saint Peter is always depicted with curly hair, a short beard and a tonsure, _____. Through this system, even the most mediocre talent was elevated by the genius? of the centuries.______. When they are not outstanding, they are scarcely able to avoid insignificance and banality in their religious works; and even when they are great _____.
    A. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious obligation and was not recognized during his lifetime.
    B. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were settled.
    C. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the sacred rules.
    D. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance.
    E. While Saint Paul always has a baldhead and along beard.
    F. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent water or the sea.
    G. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept such unstable works
    H. A tower with a window indicates a village.
    I. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.

    Yet, while Darwinian theory extends its domain, some of its cherished postulates are slipping, or atleast losing their generality. The ?modern synthesis?, the contemporary version of Darwinism that has reigned for thirty years, took the model of adaptive gene substitution within local populations as an adequate account, by accumulation and extension, of life?s entire history. The model may work well in its empirical domain of minor, local, adaptive adjustment; populations of the moth Biston betularia did turn black, by substitution of a single gene, as a selected response for decreased visibility on trees that had been blackened by industrial soot. But is the origin of new species simply this process extended to more genes and greater effect? Are
    larger evolutionary trends within major lineages just a further accumulation of sequential adaptive changes?
    Many evolutionists (myself included) are beginning to challenge this synthesis and to assert the hierarchical view that different levels of evolutionary change often reflect different kinds of causes.
    Minor adjustment within populations may be sequential and adaptive. But speciation may occur by major chromosomal changes that establish sterility with other species for reasons unrelated to adaptation. Evolutionary trends may represent a kind of higher-level selection upon essentially static species themselves, not the slow and steady alteration of a single large population through untold ages.
    Before the modern synthesis, many biologists (see Bateson, 1922, in bibliography) expressed confusion and depression because the proposed mechanisms of evolution at different levels seemed contradictory enough to preclude a unified science. After the modern synthesis, the notion spread (amounting almost to a dogma among its less thoughtful lieutenants) that all evolution could be reduced to the basic Darwinism of gradual, adaptive change within local populations. I think that we are now pursuing a fruitful path between the anarchy of Batesons?s day and the restrictions of view imposed by the modern synthesis. The modern synthesis work in its appropriate arena, but the same Darwinian processes of mutation and selection may operate in strikingly different ways at higher domains in a hierarchy of evolutionary levels. I think that we may hope for uniformity of causal agents hence a single, general theory with a Darwinian core. But we must reckon, with a multiplicity of mechanisms, that preclude the explanation of higher level phenomena by the model of adaptive gene substitution favored for the lowest level.
    At the basis of all this ferment lies nature?s irreducible complexity. Organisms are not billiard balls, propelled by simple and measurable external forces to predictable new positions on life?s pool table. Sufficiently complex systems have greater richness. Organisms have a history that constrains their future in myriad, subtle ways. Their complexity of form entails a host of functions incidental to whatever pressures of natural selection superintended the initial construction, their intricate and largely unknown pathways of embryonic development guarantee that simple inputs(minor changes)in timing, for example) may be translated into marked and surprising changes in output( the adult organism)
    Charles Darwin chose to close his great book with a striking comparison that expresses this richness. He contrasted the simpler system of planetary motion, and its result of endless, static cycling, with the complexity of life and its wondrous and unpredictable change through the ages:
    There us grandeur in this view of life, with its several powers, having been originally breathed into a few forms or into one; and that, whilst this planet has gone cycling on according to the fixed law of gravity, from so simple a beginning endless forms most beautiful and most wonderful have been, and are being, evolved.
    (27) According to the author, many contemporary evolutionists find the Darwinian synthesis
    (A) Wholly unfounded
    (B) Overly restrictive
    (C) Essentially contradictory
    (D) Sadly confusing
    (E) Strikingly productive

    (28) In asserting the complexity of nature, the author refers to billiard balls on life?s pool table
    (A)  an illustration of the unpredictable changes of nature
    (B)   an instance of confusion and mobility
    (C)  an example of a relatively uncomplicated system
    (D)  an application of the fixed law of gravity
    (E)   an accurate model of genetic change.

    (29)  It can be inferred that the paragraph immediately preceding this passage most likely discussed
    (A)   the absence of a unified theory of evolution
    (B)   individuals challenging the Darwinian  synthesis
    (C)   the expansion of evolutionary theory into new realms
    (D)   experimental methods of genetic substitution
    (E)    the place of genetics in the study of natural history.

    (30)  With which of the following statements regarding Charles Darwin would the author be most likely to agree.
    I.  Darwin left his early successors in some confusion as to the universal applicability of his evolutionary theory.
    II  Darwin experienced a period of despondency caused by the thoughtlessness of his lieutenants
    III  Darwin contrasted the simplicity and cal-culpability  of planetary cycles favorably to the diversity and unpredictability of living creatures.
    (A)    I only
    (B)   III only
    (C)   I and II only
    (D)   I and III only
    (E)    I,II, and III

    (31)  The author does all of the following EXCEPT
    (A)   Denounce an adversary
    (B)   Pose a question
    (C)   Provide an example
    (D)   Use a metaphor
    (E)    Refer to an authority

    (32)  Which of the following phrases from the passage nest categorizes the Transformation undergone by certain members of Biston betularia ?
    (A)   ?Larger evolutionary trends within major lineages?
    (B)   ?minor adjustment  within populations?
    (C)   ?irreducible complexity?
    (D)   ?endless, static cycling ?

    Q1.  Fill in the missing number in the sequence  
    7          9          13        ??         27        37
    (a) 15    (b) 21  (c) 19   (d) 18 (e)24

    Q2. In the following series, how many Ys are there such that each Y is followed by an L  next to it if the  L  is not followed by a  P  next  to it.
    Y    L    Y    P    Q    M    Y    L    P    M    L    Y    L    L    Y    Q    M    Y   
    Y    L    Q    Y    L    P    L    Y    A     M   L    Y    L    M
    (a)3      (b)2      (c)1      (d)4      (e)6

    Q3. If  VKHOWHU is coded as SHELTER how will PLQG be coded?
    (a) TRIAL        (b) ALERT       (c) MIND       (d) BRAVE      (e) GAIN

    Q4. Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROPORTIONAL were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc.  Print the letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from the right.
    (a)    T               (b) I                   (c) R                (d) O                (e) P

    Q5. How would the decimal number 242 be represented in a base -5 number System?
    (a) 1234                (b)  1542              (c) 1432               (d)1654           (e)1876

    Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 9-bit word computer?
    (a)   509                    (b)  511              (c)  519              (d)    409            (e) 479

    Q7.If n = 10 x 18 x 38, which of the following is NOT an integer?
    (a)  n / 95      (b) n / 156         (c)  n / 45      (d)    n / 76          (e) n / 40

    Q8.Which of the following is a power of 5?
    a. 3125             b.3575              c.3225      d. 3525                e. 3625

    Pick the odd one out
    Q9. (a) UNIX         (b)  WINDOWS NT          (c) ORACLE        (d) MVS             (e)  LINUX

    Q10.  (a) BAAN       (b) HTTP       (c)  WAP       (d) SMTP           (e) ARP

    Q11.The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
    (a)  (50º,51º,79º)       (b)    (60º,90º,30º)      (c)   (73º,67º,40º)      (d)    (100º,60º,20º)     (e)   (70º,34º,56º)

    Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the  number of edges , the number of faces and the number of vertices  respectively.
    Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?
    (a)  (12,6,8) (b)  (8,6,12)        (c)  (8,12,4)    (d)  (8,6,8)   (e)  (12,6,8)

    Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
     (a)   8, 0, -8, 8, 0, -8           (b)  8, 8, 8, 0, 8, 8   (c)   -8, -8, -8, -8, -8, -8            (d)  8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8          (e)    8, -8, 8, -8, 8, -8

    The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Physics, Math and English.  Answer the next three questions based on the diagram



    Q14. How many more (or less) students passed in Physics than students who passed in English?
    (a)2      (b)3      (c)1      (d)4      (e)5

    Q15.  What percentage of students passing in Math also pass in English but not in Physics.
    (a)16    (b)18    (c)17.4 (d)20    (e)15

    Q16. What percentage of total passed in all three subjects.
    (a)4      (b)5      (c)6      (d)8      (e)9

    Q17. A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as:
    (Energy X Velocity)   dinki answer none but kani answer adi kadu
    (Mass X Acceleration)
    In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?
    (a)Time            (b) Power         (c) Distance      (d) Velocity      (e) None

    Q18.A work twice as fast as B . If B can complete a piece of work independently in 12 days, then the number of days taken by A and B together to finish the work is :
    (a)6      (b)4      (c)8      (d)12    (e)16

    Q19.Which of these matrices is singular
    12     3                 2      3                   4     0                  21     15
    A =                      B =                                  C =                      D =
    9      2                -4      6                   0     4                  7       5
    (a)A     (b)B     (c)C     (d)D     (e) None

    Q20. Match the following relationships:
    (i)  Female ? Girl                           (1)  Not a type of
    (ii)  Basmati ? Wheat                      (2)  Part of
    (iii) Snake ? Reptile                        (3)  A type of
    (iv) Roof ? Building                         (4)  Superset of

    (a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2       (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2      (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3      (d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4       (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

    Q21. If * stands for squaring and > stands for change of sign what is the value of *  > * (4)  -  > * > (4)?
    (a)260  (b)278  (c) 272 (d)264  (e)268

    Q22. A sequence is defined recursively as
    g(0) = 1
    g(n) = g(n-1) * n2, where * stands for multiplication
    What will be the value of g(4)?
    (a)546  (b)576  (c)564  (d)588  (e)512

    Q23.What curve best suits the following data:













    (a) y = logn x    (b) y = log10 x  (c) y = ex   (d) y = -log10 x  (e) y = - ex

    Q24. A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X (2,3)?
    (a)3211            (b)3451            (c)3031            (d)3241            (e)3445

    Q25. Of the four straight lines A, B, C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set?
    A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 5y+5, D: y = 7x+3
    (a)AC  (b) AD (c) BC  (d) BD (e)AB  

    Q26.Evaluate the expression:
    M(735,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
    M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation
    (a)15    (b)17    (c) 19   (d)12    (e)14

    Q30. Three independent strategies A, B and C have been initiated for cost cutting in a company producing respectively 30%, 40% and 10% savings. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net saving achieved?
    (a) 56%            (b) 64%           (c) 62.2%         (d) 68%           (e) 61%

    Q27.The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:
    Hour                            Declination
    2                                  8o 6? 43.5?
    3                                  7o 59? 54.8?
    Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.
    (a) 7o 53? 6.1? (b) 7o 56? 54.5?  (c) 9o 46? 33.5? (d) 7o16? 12.5? (e) 8o 39? 28.7?

    Q28.The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since noon. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 3.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
    (a) 53%            (b) 52%           (c) 48%            (d) 50%           (e) 58.6%

    Q29.An aircraft takes off from A (89o N Lat, 40o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32o N Lat, 40o W Long). If the flying time is 9 hours what is the local time of landing at B?
    (a)6.40 AM      (b) 4.00 AM    (c) 5.40 AM    (d) 7.00AM     (e) 8.00AM

    Q30.Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:




























    (A È C ) Ç B









    Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the decimal value.       
    (a)12    (b)15    (c)17    (d)18    (e) 19  

    Q31. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per
    millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
    (a) 10.11 N      (b) 11.011 N    (c) 11.01 N      (d) 10.101 N    (e) 10.011 N

    Q32.The productivity of a team of engineers is given by the function
    P (N) = 4000 ?N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in productivity if the strength of the team is increased by 1%.
    (a) 0.5%          (b) 0.25%        (c) 0.75%         (d) 1%             (e) 2%

    Q33. An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river
    (a) 450             (b) 1800           (c) 3900           (d) 2100           (e) 2700


    Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

      (1) John is undecided which of the 4 popular novels to buy. He is considering a spy thriller, a murder mystery, a Gothis romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessarily in that order and published by Heron, Pigeon, Bluejay and Sparrow, not necessarily in that order.
    1. The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
    2.  The spy thriller is published by Herono
    3.  The science fiction novel is by Buchfield and is not published by Bluejay
    4.  The Gothic romance is by Hopper.

    1. Pigeon publishes:
    (A)  The murder mystery
    (B)  The science fiction novel
    (C)  The spy thriller
    (D)  The Gothic romance
    (E)   The novel by Rothko

    2. The novel by Gorky is:
    (A)  A science fiction novel published by Bluejay
    (B)  A Gothic romance published by Bluejay
    (C)  published by Heron and is a murder mystery
    (D)  published by Pigeon and is a Gothic romance
    (E)   published by Heron and is a spy thriller

    3. John purchases books by the 2 authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical order. He does not buy:
    (A)  the murder mystery
    (B)  the book published by Pigeon
    (C)  A science fiction novel
    (D)  the book published by Bluejay
    (E)   the Gothic romance

    4.  On the basis of the first paragraphs and statements (2), (3), and (4) only , it is possible to deduce that
    I.   Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
    II.  Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
    III. The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow or Pigeon
    (A)  I only
    (B)  II only
    (C)  III only
    (D)  I and III only
    (E)  I, II and III

    (2) On Sunday, December 23, four ships were berthed at the New York City Municipal Pier at West 55 Street. All four ships were beginning their series of winter cruise to various ports in the Atlantic and the Caribbean.
    Ship W left at 4 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 8 day cruises to Bermuda and Nassau.
    Ship X left at 4:30 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of alternating 11 and 13 day cruises.
    Ship Y sailed at 5 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 5 day cruises to Bermuda
    Ship Z sailed on Monday, December 24, for a series of 7 day cruises to Nassau.

    Each cruise officially begins on the day after the departure. Each ship is scheduled to return to New York City early in the morning after the last day of the cruise and leave again late in the afternoon of the same day.

    1. On December 31, which ships will be sailing from New York on a New Year?s Eve cruise?
    (A)  W and X
    (B)   X and Y
    (C)  W and Z
    (D)  X and Z
    (E)   X, Y and Z

    2. On how many occasions between Dec. 24 and Feb. 28 will 3 ships be moor at the pier?
    (A)  0
    (B)   1
    (C)  2
    (D)  3
    (E)   4

    3. On which day of the week will these four ships make most of their departures?
    (A)  Sunday
    (B)  Monday
    (C)  Tuesday
    (D)  Thursday
    (E)   Saturday

    4.On which days of the week in the period between Dec.24 and Feb. 28 will the pier be least crowded?
    (A)  Tuesday and Friday
    (B)   Tuesday and Thursday
    (C)  Friday and Saturday
    (D)  Wednesday and Thursday
    (E)   Thursday and Saturday

    (3) Observance of Memorial Day, which falls on Saturday this year will be as follows for the tristate area (New Albion, New Shetland, New Wales):
    Banks and government departments which are normally open on Saturdays will close.
    Those normally closed on Saturdays will close as follows:
    Banks will close Friday in Wales and Monday in New Shetland.
    State government offices will close Friday in New Albion and New Shetland.
    Sanitation pick up in Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas will be cancelled Friday in New Albion and New Shetland, and Monday in New Wales; pick up in Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday in all three states.
    The post office and other federal offices, normally open Monday through Saturday, will be closed Saturday but open Friday and Monday in all three states.
    (Banks are normally open Saturday only in New Albion; state government offices are normally open Saturday only in Wales.

    1. Which is not available Friday, Saturday, or Monday in New Wales?
    (A)  Banking services
    (B)  State government office services
    (C)  Sanitation pickup in some areas
    (D)  Postal services
    (E)   Federal government office services.

    2. Mrs. Semkow goes to the post office, the bank and the state income tax bureau on Monday. She mat live in:
    I.  New Albion
    II. New Shetland
    III. New Wales
    (A)  I only
    (B)  II only
    (C)  I and III only
    (D)  II and III only
    (E)   I, II or III

    3. Mr. Rudolph find all but one of the listed services available Friday. He lives in:
    (A)  New Albion or New Shetland
    (B)  A Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up area in New Wales
    (C)  Any new area in New Albion or New Wales
    (D)  A Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up area in any of the other three states
    (E)   A Monday-Wednesday-Friday area in New Albion

    4. In which area(s) is there no deviation from normal service on Monday for any of the services listed?
    (A)  All of New Albion
    (B)  Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas in New Albion and New Wales
    (C)  Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up areas in New Shetland and New Wales
    (D)  All of New Wales
    (E)   Monday-Wednesday-Friday areas in New Shetland

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