SBI  Placement Paper   Whole Testpaper   -31 Dec 1899

SBI  Placement Paper   Whole Testpaper   -31 Dec 1899

  • Posted by  FreshersWorld 
    7 Jan, 2012


    Test Paper VII

    English Language - II

    Directions Q. 1-10 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words/ phrases while are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions

    One of the most critical demographic events in the world today is population ageing, i.e., the process by which the share of older individuals in the total population starts becoming larger. The ageing phenomenon, which has been initially experienced by developed countries, is now steadily approaching the developing world. Projections show that over the next five decades, world median age will continue to increase, resulting in enhanced old age dependency ratios in all parts of the world. Thus, population ageing would be a major global public unprecedented challenges for fiscal, monetary and overall macro-economic management.

    There is a general consensus that ageing population reduces output growth, limits economic welfare and lowers employment. One direct effect of population ageing is labour shortages that are caused by declining birth rates and increasing life spans. This translates itself into a higher old-age dependency ratio (i.e., proportion of population aged 15 to 64). Consequently, with ageing, the economy's capacity to sustain the elderly population would decline. An important consequence of this development is reflected in increasing fiscal pressures through higher government spending on social security, health care and other welfare programmes for the elderly accompanied by lower  tax buoyancy consequent to falling proportions of the productive labour force. Given the hard budget could mean lower government spending for programmes that primarily benefit the young. With public pension schemes coming under increasing pressure to raise contribution levels or cut the size of social safety benefits, the issue of fiscal sustainability is one of the principal challenges facing policymakers world wide, particularly in the context of intergenerational equity.

    The experience of the US, Western Europe and other Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development  (OECD) countries suggests that substantial demographic changes have occured in the past few decades. Improvements in life standards, health care and nutrition have increased life expectancy. As a result, the old-age dependency ration in OECD countries is projected to reach nearly 50 per cent by 2050. This is going to pose a huge fiscal burden in terms of social security, health care, pension and other related expenditures. In this regard, an OECD exercise reveals a rise in old age pension spending, on an average, by about three to four percentage points of GDP over the period till 2050. Expenditure relating to health and long-term medical care is estimated to increase by more than three percentage point of GDP over the same period. Overall, total age-related expenditures relative to GDP cold rise in average by about seven percentage points over the period 2000-2050. In turn, this would imply an average decline of six to seven percentage points in the primary balance to GDP ratio

    1. The term " Population ageing" refers to 
    A. the portion of senior citizen in a developed country.       B. the percentage of older people in a developing nation
    C. increase in the overall population of a developed country
    D. enhancement in the proportion of older people in the population    E. None of these

    2. Which of the following is definitely true of population ageing?
    A. It was almost simultaneously experienced by all the countries of the globe
    B. The underdeveloped countries cannot experience the phenomenon.
    C. Developing and developed countries experienced the phenomenon respectively in succession
    D. The challenges posed by population ageing had been witnessed in the past also.
    E. None of these

    3. On which of the following points related to population ageing, there is no dispute among thinkers?
    A. The direct effect of population ageing is abundance of labourers
    B. Economic welfare will be enhanced due to availability to experienced people
    C. Employment will be lowered significantly due to population ageing
    D. Old age dependency ratio will be lowered significantly
    E. None of these

    4. What is most likely to happen if the dependency ratio is higher?
    A. It would lower the economist's capacity to sustain the elderly population
    B. Government spending on social security would significantly decline
    C. Productive labour force will reduce
    D. Due to increased longevity expenditure on health care will reduce
    E. None of these

    5. Which of the following factors is responsible for increase in longevity?
    I. Substantial raise in living status      II. Adequate and timely health care       III. Nourishing and healthy diet
    A. I and II only    B. II and III only       C. I and III only        D. All of these       E. None of these

    6. Which of the following is most likely to happen by middle of the 21st century?
    I. In countries like the US and Western Europe, the old-age dependency ratio is likely to touch 50 per cent
    II. Six to seven points increase in primary balance to GDP ratio in OECD countries
    III. Raise to the extent of three to four percentage points of GDP in age old pension spending
    A. I and II only     B. I and III only          C. II and III only          D. All of these     E. None of these

    Directions   Q. 7-8: Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold in the passage.

    7. Span 
    A. width         B. gap       C. duration        D. distance    E. extent

    8. Consensus
    A. agreement         B. consent        C. harmony       D. compromise       E. interaction

    Directions Q. 9-10: Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold in the passage

    9. Concern
    A. reassurance        B. comfort        C. anxiety      D. indifference    E. neglect

    10. Sustain
    A. prolong             B. uphold        C. protract       D. diminish        E. quit

    Directions Q. 11-20: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

    11. A. He grow up the way        B. Many young children grow up        C. Pampered, adored  
    D. and inwardly        E. No error

    12. A. He pulled his lips together     B. close his eyes       C. and I watched the first teardrop
    D. fall down the side of his cheek      E. No erro

    13. A. One Sunday when his sons       B. Rob and Jon was home     C. they all gathered  
    D. in the living room      E. No error

    14. A. The audit committee of the board        B. has been constituted      C. by the board of directors
    D. as per instructions of the Reserve Bank of India        E. No error

    15.A Proper care was taken        B. for the maintenance of accounting record    C. as per accordance with   
    D. the provisions of applicable        E. No error

    16. A. Know he was dying      B. Morrie visited with Mitch         C. his study every Tuesday
    D. just as they used to back in college       E. No erro

    17. A. We are planning        B. to set up a training college      C. to train our marketing team
    D. for effective marketing of our products        E. No error

    18. A. Nobody knew     B. where I spend my day        C. and nobody really
    D. seemed to care       E. No error

    19. A. My father has       B. always had a curious habit        C. which I could never understand
    D. of consulting astrologers        E. No error

    20.  A. I stopped at Aurangabad           B. from which I make excursions       C. to the Ajanta Caves
    D. and the temple at Ellora          E. No error

    Directions. Q. 21-25 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    I was born on Nov. 30, 1835 in the almost invisible village of Florida, Missouri. My parents moved to Missouri in the early 'thirties'; I do not remember just when, for I was not born then the cared nothing for such things. The village contained a hundred people and I increased the population by one percent. It is more than the best men in history doing as much, not even Shakespeare. But I did it for Florida

    Recently, someone in Missouri has sent me a picture of the house I was born in. Heretofore I have always stated that it was a palace but I shall be more careful now.

    The village and two streets, each a couple of hundred yards long, covered with stiff black mud in wet times, deep dust in dry. Most of the houses were of logs. There were none of  bricks and none of stones. There was a Church, which was a school house on week days. There were two stores in the village. My uncle owned one of them. It was very small with a few rolls of cloth; a few barrels of salt fish, coffee and sugar, brooms, axes and other tools here and there; a lot of cheap hats and in pans strung from the walls. At the other end of the room, there were bags of shot, a cheese or two, and a barrel or so of whisky. If a boy bought five or ten cents' worth of anything he was entitled to a handful of sugar from the barrel; if a woman bought a few yards of cloth; she was entitled to some thread; if a man bought something he was at liberty to swallow as big a drink of whisky as he wanted.

    My uncle was also a farmer and his place was in the country for miles for Florida. I have not come across a better man than he was. I was his guest for two or three year after we removed to Hannibal until I was eleven or twelve years old.

    21.The author of the passage was born
    A. in a busy village        B. in a village in Mississippi       C. in a village located near a river
    D. in a village of Florida in Missouri.      E. None of these

    22. Since when the author decided not to describe his house as a palace?
    A. The day he was born in the invisible village             B. When he some one told him not to bluff too much
    C. When he saw a dream in which he found his house    
    D. When some one in Missouri had sent him a picture of the house      E. None of these

    23. The houses in Florida were made of 
    A. bricks          B. stones      C. marbles      D. logs        E. None of these

    24. How was the church utilized on week days?
    A. The church was as a theatre for conducting Cinema             B. The villagers used it as a vegetable market during week days
    C. The church was used as a school on week days       D. The log church was kept idle on week days 
    E. None of these

    25. Which of the following statement is true?
    I. If a body bought five or ten cents worth of anything, he was entitled to some thread
    II. If a woman bought a few yards of cloth, she was entitled to a handful of sugar
    III. If a man bought something he was entitled to a mouth full of whisky
    A. Only I       B. Only II     C. Only III       D. I and II only        E. I, II and III

    Directions Q.26-30 : Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions that them:

    I. Lastly, my thanks to Ramesh, for wanting to do this last thesis together. 
    II. And, as always, my appreciation to David, who often believes in me more than I do myself.
    III. I would like to acknowledge the enormous help given to me in creating this book. 
    IV. For their patience, I wish to thank Joseph and John and multitude of my friends
    V. Also special thanks to Thomas, my editor, for handling this project with the right touch
    VI. Have you ever had a friend like Ramesh

    26. Which of the following will be the first sentence after rearrangement?
    A. I    B. II      C. III     D. IV     E. V

    27. Which of the following will be the second sentence after rearrangement?
    A. I       B. II       C. III      D. IV     E. V

    28. Which of the following will be the third sentence after rearrangement?
    A. I       B. II      C. III       D. IV      E. V

    29. Which of the following will be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
    A. II     B. III     C. IV       D. V      E. VI

    30. Which of the following will be the sixth (last) sentence after rearrangement?
    A. I      B. II      C. III      D. IV      E. VI

    Directions Q. 31-40: In each of the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are given after the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case

    Human Resources Development Department has......31... heads of all Central Office Departments to the notice of the their departments....34....the availability of professional counsellor engaged by our organisation on contract basis to....35...counseling services to employees of Mumbai. HRDD has also sought the...36...of all the employees to...37...the fears and unfounded notions, if any, about counseling so that employees come forward and avail of it. Counseling facility for employees Mumbai on Sept.21 with the help of a professional counsellor. The counsellor is...40...on Mondays in the Main Building Mumbai.

    31. A. reported      B. indicated     C. referred     D. advised     E. invited'

    32. A. tell              B. ask       C. show      D. give      E. bring

    33. A. affected      B. absolved   C. attached    D. affixed     E. surrounded

    34. A. regarding     B. about       C. upon        D. aforesaid     E. consequent

    35. A. decide       B. determine    C. provide    D. takeover     E. spread

    36. A. availability    B. presence   C. support    D. permission    E. objection

    37. A. dissolve       B. disperse     C. dispel       D. displace       E. differ

    38. A. asked          B. directed       C. diverted    D. encouraged     E. offered

    39. A. obstructed      B. observed     C. started    D. laid      E. resulted

    40. A. ready      B. available       C. accessible     D. attainable      E. approachable

    Directions  Q. 41-45 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete

    41. All letters received from Government should.................... be acknowledged
    A. suddenly         B. obviously       C. immediately       D. occasionally     E. adequately

    42. The note should be.............. to all the concerned departments for their consideration
    A. regulated         B. requested        C. carried       D. forwarded       E. represented

    43. The process should be completed as far as possible within a week, .......... which the matter should be brought to notice of the officer concerned
    A. following        B. failing       C. realising       D. referring       E. regarding

    44. The Officers are regular transfers
    A. free         B. open       C. subject      D. available      E. dictated

    45. Mumbai Officer...................a meeting of senior officials to discuss the high incidence of frauds
    A. attended        B. convened       C. reported      D. registered       E. asked

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