FCI  Placement Paper   Whole Testpaper   Question Bank Latest (2012)-

FCI  Placement Paper   Whole Testpaper   Question Bank Latest (2012)-


  • Posted by  FreshersWorld 
    7 Jan, 2012

     

    FCI AGRICULTURE Solved objective Question

    1. How many factors are identified influencing plant growth tillnow ?
    (A) 55
    (B) 60
    (C) 52
    (D) 50
    Answer:C
    2, How does the moisture stress affect the cell 
    (A) Affect cell division
    (B) Affect cell expansion
    (C) Cell mortality rate is affected
    (D) No effect on cell
    Answer:A
    3. At the vegetative growth stage, flowering is stopped in food-grain crops, known as-
    (A) sigmoid growth curve
    (B) determinate growth
    (C) indeterminate growth
    (D) grand growth period
    Answer:B
    4. Which one of the following canbe assessed by using the follow-ing equation ?
    A= Economic Production / Biomass Production
    (A) Panicle emergence rate
    (B) Rate of flowering
    (C) Harvest Index
    (D) Leaf production rate
    Answer:C
    5. How much radiation energy percentage radiating on plant is used in photosynthesis ?
    (A) 0-50%-210%
    (B) 0-42%-1?66%
    (C) 0-25%-0-30%
    (D) 0-16%-0-24%
    Answer:B
    6. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in-
    (A) 12-15 weeks
    (B) 15-17 weeks
    (C) 10-12 weeks
    (D) 8-10 weeks
    Answer:A
    7. Which is not an inorganic matter
    in the following ?
    (A) Magnesium
    (B) Iron
    (C) Fat
    (D) Iodine
    Answer:C
    8. Which is the highest digestible protein non-leguminous crop among the following 
    (A) Napier
    (B) Maize silage
    (C) Maize
    (D) Iowar
    Answer:D
    9. Which disease occurs, when more sorghum is consumed ?
    (A) Rickets
    (B) Scurvy
    (C) Nightblindness
    (D) Pellagra
    Answer:D
    10. Which Sorghum variety is not multicut ?
    (A) Pusa Chari-2
    (B) M.P. Chari-2
    (C) M.P. Chari
    (D) U.P. Chari-1
    Answer:D
    11. Which is not true in relation to Bajra ? ?
    (A) Penniseturn typhoides
    (B) Graminae family
    (C) Chromosome No. ? 20
    (D) OriginAfrica
    Answer:D
    12. Which variety of Barley is husk- less
    (A) Pragati (K 508)
    (B) Ritambhara (K 551)
    (C) Geetamjali (K 1149)
    (D) Karan-3
    Answer:D
    13. Which is not true in relation to Gram ?
    (A) Subfamily??Papilionaceae
    (B) Chromosome No.?22
    (C) Acid??Ma.lic and Oxalic
    (D) Origin?North America
    Answer:D
    14. Which does not match in relation to Cotton ?
    (A) C-520 ?? Diploid
    (B) G-27 ? Diploid
    (C) Vikas ? American
    (D) Ranivan ? American
    Answer:D
    15. Which is not matched in relation to sugarcane ?
    (A) Seed treatment?-Aglol 3%
    (B) For seed?6-7 month old crop
    (C) Sowing?Upper portion is more used
    (D) After flowering?Used for sowing
    Answer:D
    16. Which is not basic principle of Agronomy ?
    (A) To select appropriate mate-for seed & sowing
    (B) Management of soil andclimate
    (C) Appropriate intercropping activities management for crop
    (D) Livestock management forAgriculture
    Answer:D
    17. Where and when was World Meteorological Organization established ?
    (A) New York ? 1980
    (B) Washington-1978
    (C) Geneva?1978
    (D) Rome- 1976
    Answer:C
    18. Effective cause of atmospheric pressure is not-
    (A) temperature
    (B) altitude from the sea level
    (C) rotation of earth
    (D) soil erosion
    Answer:D
    19. Which is not correct in the following ?
    (A) X-rays and Gamma rays? 9% of energy
    (B) Visible lighting rays -41%of energy
    (C) Infrared rays -50% ofY energy
    (D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% ofenergy
    Answer:A
    20. Match List-I with List?II andselect the correct answer usingthe codes given below-List-I
    (a) Paddy (b) Wheat(c) Maize (d) Groundnut
    List-II ?
    1. 20°C 2. 22°C3. 25°C 4. 26°C
    Codes
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A) 4 2 3 1
    (B) 2 1 4 3
    (C) 3 4 2 1
    (D) 1 3 4 2
    Answer:B
    21, Which states are the highest 8:lowest producers of Potato crop ?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand
    (B) Gujarat and Assam
    (C) Uttar Pradesh & Himachalpradesh
    (D) Bihar & Kashmir
    Answer:A
    22. Which elements are useful inenergy storage, transfer andbonding ?
    (A) N P K
    (B) N S P
    (C) N K S
    (D) None of these
    Answer:C
    23. Which of the following elementsplay an important role in nitro-gen metabolism ?
    (A) Magnesium
    (B) Manganese
    (C) Molybdenum
    (D) Iron
    Answer:C
    24. How much Brinjal seed may beobtained from one hectare area 7
    (A) 150-200 kg
    (B) 100-150 kg
    (C) 200-300 kg
    (D) 75-125 kg
    Answer:D
    25. Which species of honeybee is notIndian ?
    (A) Apis florea
    (B) Apis dorsata
    (C) Apis cerana
    (D) Apis mellifera
    Answer:D
    26. Which of the following is thecross of Karan Swiss ?
    (A) Sahiwal x Brown Swiss
    (B) Sahiwal x Holstein
    (C) Hariyana x Brovsm Swiss
    (D) Hariyana >< ]ersey
    Answer:A
    27. For how many years is Sheepable to breed ?
    (A) 10 years
    (B) 7years
    (C) 5 years
    (D) 12 years
    Answer:A
    28, l-low much area mz is requiredfor a Goat ?
    (A) 0-9 ~ 1?O m2
    (B) 1-1-5 m2
    (C) 0-75 ? 090 mz
    (D) 1-5 ? 1-75 mz
    Answer:C
    29. Goal of extension education is-
    (A) To promote income of thefarmers
    (B) To promote production ofthe crops
    (C) To promote new crops
    (D) To promote scientific out-look
    Answer:D
    30. The major fungi that effect food-grains in storage are-?
    (A) Mucor
    (B) Rhizopus
    (C) Candida
    (D) Aspergillus
    Answer:A
    31. The leaching loss of Nitrogen (N)is more in the form of?
    (A) Ammonia
    (B) Nitrate
    (C) Nitrogen
    (D) Water solution
    Answer:B
    32. Which is not a natural factoraffecting soil fertility ?
    (A) Topography
    (B) Soil age
    (C) Air
    (D) Parent material
    Answer:C
    33. Approximately how much areain lakh hectares of saline andalkali soils are there in Uttar
    Pradesh ?
    (A) 15-00 lakh hectares
    (B) 12-4 lakhhectares
    (C) 10-4 lakh hectares
    (D) 14-4 lakh hectares
    Answer:B
    34. How much percentage of solublesalts are present in Alkali soils ?
    (A) 1% ? 2%
    (B) 0-1% ? 0-2%
    (C) 1-5% ? 2-5%
    (D) 2% ~ 3%
    Answer:B
    35, How much is the cropped area inUttar Pradesh ?
    (A) 9%
    (B) 11%
    (C) 12%
    (D) 8%
    Answer:C
    36. The monsoon airs in the countryreaches at which bank first ofall ?
    (A) Coastal region of Orissa
    (B) Bay of Bengal region
    (C) Coastal region of Kerala of
    South Indian region
    (D) Kachchh region of Gujarat
    Answer:C
    37. A.D.P. to A.T.P. change is called
    (A) Photosymthesis
    (B) Phosphorylation
    (C) Transpiration
    (D) Oxidation
    Answer:B
    38. What is the order of C 4 plants 7
    (A) Sugarcane ? Maize ? Sudangrass ? Bajra
    (B) Sugarcane ? Cotton ? Paddy- Maize
    (C) Sudan grass ? Sugarcane -Paddy ?- Bajra
    (D) Cotton ? Maize ~ Bajra ?Sugarcane
    Answer:A
    39. At what stage are more nutrientsessentially required in cerealcrops ?
    (A) Growth stage of plants
    (B)` Formation of leaves
    (C) Particle initiation
    (D) Maturity of crops
    Answer:A
    40. At which stage of crop, there isno compehtion for light, moistureand nutrients 7
    (A) Node formation stage
    (B) Seedling stage
    (C) Grain formation stage
    (D) Before maturity stage
    Answer:D
    41. Approximately how much HCNdose is harmful for animal feeding 
    (A) 0-25 gm
    (B) 050 gm
    (C) 2?50 gm
    (D) 3-50 gm
    Answer:B
    42. Due to which reason is theNapier Grass mixed with Clusterbean or Cowpea for feeding ?
    (A) Due to high crude fibre
    (B) Due to oxalic acid
    (C) Due to more carbohydrates
    (D) Due to more HCN content
    Answer:A
    43. Which is the perennial variety ofElephant Grass (Napier Grass) ?
    (A) Pusa Giant
    (B) NB-21 `
    (C) Pusa Giant Napier
    (D) Napier-1
    Answer:C
    44. More than how much percentageof loss of urea should not beduring silage fermentation ?
    (A) 20% ? 22%
    (B) 15% ? 18%
    (C) 10% ? 12%
    (D) 8% ? 10%
    Answer:D
    45. From where is Krishak Bharatimagazine published ?
    (A) G. B. Pant University of
    Agriculture & Technology, Pant
    Nagar
    (B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur
    (C) Narendra Dev University ofAgriculture and Technology,Fajzabad
    (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai PatelUniversity of Agriculture andTechnology, Meerut
    Answer:B
    46. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germi-nation and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree Celsius ?
    (A) 3?5°C-5?5°C and 20°C?22°C
    (B) 5?6°C?7?5°C and 16°C?18°C
    (C) 8°C?10°C and 30°C?35°C
    (D) 10°C?12?C and 25°C?30°C
    Answer:D
    47. In case of availability of two irrigations for wheat, at which critical stage crop should beirrigated ?
    (A) Tillering and Flowering
    (B) Crown Root Initiation andMilking stage p
    (C) Crown Root Initiation andFlowering
    (D) Late joint and Dough stage
    Answer:C
    48. Which is not the symptom ofKhuim disease
    (A) Dark grey colour spots onleaves
    (B) Adverse effect on rootgrowth
    (C) More diseases stop the cropgrowth
    (D) Stem of plants tum and fall 1down
    Answer:A
    49. What is the suitable Rabi maize variety ?
    (A) Sharadmani
    (B) Azad Uttam
    (C) Naveen
    (D) Ganga ? 5
    Answer:A
    50. Which disease is not related to Bajra ?
    (A) Green Ear
    (B) Ergot
    (C) Wilt
    (D) Rust
    Answer:C

    FCI Assistant Grade III Exam Paper

    1. Total cropped area in India is:
    (a) 137 mha
    (b) 142 mha
    (c) 147 mha
    (d) 152 mha
    2. The average agricultural production from irrigated area is:
    (a) 1/8 tonnes/ha
    (b) 2.0 tonnes/ha
    (c) 2.4 tonnes/ha
    (d) 2-8 tonnes/ha
    3. Indian agriculture is facing the following major problems. Which is NOT CORRECT?
    (a) Land degradation
    (b) Rising population
    (c) Lack of bullock power
    (d) Stagnant cultivable area
    4. The area occupied by legume in India is
    (a) 24 mha
    (b) 29 mha
    (c) 34 mha
    (d) 39 mha
    5. The principle oil seed crop of India is
    (a) Sesame
    (b) Mustard
    (c) Linseed
    (d) Groundnut
    6. Which fiber crop occupies largest area in India?
    (a) Jute
    (b) Flax
    (c) Cotton
    (d) Sunnhemp
    7. First agricultural university was established
    (a) Ludmana
    (b) Pusa
    (c) Kanpur
    (d) Pant Nagar
    8. Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to Dr. Norman Borlaug in
    (a) 1969
    (b) 1970
    (c) 1971
    (d) 1972
    9. Dr Rajendra Singh Paroda has been felicitated
    with the award
    (a) Padam Shri
    (b) Padam Bhushan
    (c) Padam Vibhushan
    (d) Bharat Ratna
    10. To be self reliant in agriculture the following growth rate per year is necessary
    (a) 3.0%
    (b) 3.5%
    (c) 4.0%
    (d) 4.5%
    11. On the basis of agro climatic conditions Pali,Jalore, Sirohi and Jodhpur are included in Zone
    (a) II-B
    (b) II-A
    (c) I-B
    (d)I-A
    12. Which state is devoid of arid zone?
    (a) Punjab
    (b) Madhya Pradesh
    (c) Maharashtra
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
    13. Indian Institute of Soil Science is located at
    (a) Ludhiana
    (b) Hisar
    (c) New Delhi
    (d) Bhopal
    14. The irrigation water requirement of onion is
    (a) 60 cm
    (b) 50 cm
    (c) 40 cm
    (d) 30 cm
    15. Sowing of second crop in between the standard rows of the first crop before its removal is called
    (a) Inter cropping
    (b) Multi copping
    (c) Intensive cropping
    (d) Relay cropping
    16. The cropping system beneficial to prevent soil erosion due to winds is
    (a) Mixed cropping
    (b) Strip cropping
    (c) Relay cropping
    (d) Multi cropping
    17. The optimum temperature for sugarcane is
    (a) 21-27 °C
    (b) 14-29 °C
    (c) 25-30 °C
    (d) 28-34 °C
    18. Per hectare seed rate of guar is
    (a) 3 kg
    (b) 6 kg
    (c) 9 kg
    (d)12 kg
    19. The production of oil seeds in. India during 1996-97 was
    (a) 22 million tonnes
    (b) 25 million tonnes
    (c) 24 million tonnes
    (d) 26 million tonnes
    20. The layer in the soil profile where material removed from the two overlaying horizons is deposited is called
    (a) A-horizon
    (b) B-horizon
    (c) C-horizon
    (d) D-horizon
    21. The diameter of very fine sand particles is-
    (a) Below 0.002 mm
    (b) 0.05-0.002mm
    (c) 0.01-0.05 mm
    (d) 0.05-0.10mm
    22. The mineral weathering and clay formation are rapid where the climate is-
    (a) Warm and moist
    (b) Warm and dry
    (c) Cold and moist
    (d) Cold and dry
    23. Alkali soils are treated with gypsum to correct the deficiency of-
    (a) Sulphur
    (b) Calcium
    (c) Magnesium
    (d) Zinc
    24. Which micro-nutrient is most deficient in Indo-Gangatic alluvium soils?
    (a) Iron
    (b) Zinc
    (c) Copper
    (d) Manganese
    25. Which fertilizer is most beneficial for alkali soils?
    (a) Urea
    (b) Ammonium sulphate
    (c) Calcium ammonium nitrate
    (d) Ammonium nitrate

    Answers:

    1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a
    6. c 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c
    11. a 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. d
    16. b 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b
    21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. b

     

    1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule

    by an official proclamation?

    (A) Lord Hastings

    (B) Lord Cornwallis

    (C) Lord Minto

    (D) Lord Dalhousie

    Ans. (D)

     

    2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?

    (A) Bauxite

    (B) Copper

    (C) Iron

    (D) Manganese

    Ans. (B)

     

    3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?

    (A) Arunachal Pradesh

    (B) Manipur

    (C) Nagaland

    (D) Sikkim

    Ans. (C)

     

    4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?

    (A) Laddakh

    (B) Lahaul

    (C) Nepal

    (D) Tibet

    Ans. (A)

     

    5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?

    (A) Condensation point

    (B) Dew point

    (C) Sublimation point

    (D) Saturation point

    Ans. (D)

     

    6. The earth?s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?

    (A) Cropland

    (B) Forest area

    (C) Sand desert

    (D) Snow area

    Ans. (D)

     

    7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?

    (A) Raja Rammohan Roy

    (B) Devendranath Tagore

    (C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

    (D) Keshab Chandra Sen

    Ans. (A)

     

    8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?

    (A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

    (B) Louis Pasteur

    (C) Robert Hooke

    (D) Robert Virchow

    Ans. (A)

     

    9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?

    (A) Dictyosomes

    (B) Endoplasmic reticula

    (C) Lysosomes

    (D) Mitochondria

    Ans. (D)

     

    10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?

    (A) Dolphins and Whales

    (B) Frogs and Toads

    (C) Prawns and Crabs

    (D) Seals and Walruses

    Ans. (B)

     

    11. Which one of the following statements is correct?

    A seed is a ripened ?

    (A) ovary

    (B) flower

    (C) gynoecium

    (D) ovule

    Ans. (D)

     

    12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?

    (A) Capitalism

    (B) Liberalism

    (C) Fascism

    (D) Marxism

    Ans. (D)

     

    13. What is ?Look East Policy? often in the news?

    (A) Government of India?s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States

    (B) India?s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline

    (C) India?s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas

    (D) India?s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries

    Ans. (D)

     

    14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ?Right of Mass? and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?

    (A) Thomas Jefferson

    (B) Thomas Paine

    (C) John Locke

    (D) Jean Jacques Rousseau

    Ans. (B)

     

    15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?

    (A) Eli Whitney

    (B) George Stephenson

    (C) McAdam

    (D) James Watt

    Ans. (A)

     

    16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?

    (A) Planning Commission

    (B) National Development Council

    (C) Union Ministry of Finance

    (D) Finance Commission

    Ans. (D)

    17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?

    (A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

    (B) The President of India

    (C) The Prime Minister of India

    (D) The Union Home Minister

    Ans. (C)

    18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of ?Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries??

    (A) First

    (C) Third

    (B) Second

    (D) Fourth

    Ans. (B)

     

    19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?

    (A) Ashoka ? Kanishka ? Milinda

    (B) Milinda ? Ashoka ? Kanishka

    (C) Ashoka ? Milinda ? Kanishka

    (D) Milinda ? Kanishka ? Ashoka

    Ans. (C)

    20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?

    (A) Bird-flu

    (B) Chickenpox

    (C) Cholera

    (D) Dengue

    Ans. (C)

    21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?

    (A) Bat

    (C) Shark

    (B) Pigeon

    (D) Vulture

    Ans. (A)

     

    22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?

    (A) Colour blindness

    (B) Down?s syndrome

    (C) Hemophilia

    (D) Xerophthalmia

    Ans. (D)

     

    23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?

    (A) Gastrin

    (B) Keratin

    (C) Trypsin

    (D) Vasopressin

    Ans. (C)

     

    24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?

    (A) Oesophagus

    (B) Pancreas

    (C) Spleen

    (D) Large intestine

    Ans. (B)

     

    25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when

    shortages occur?

    (A) Liver

    (B) Pancreas

    (C) Spleen

    (D) Lymph nodes

    Ans. (C)

    26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?

    (A) Conservation of angular momentum

    (B) Conservation of kinetic energy

    (C) Conservation of linear momentum

    (D) Conservation of velocity

    Ans. (C)

    27. Which one of the following is correct?

    A negatively charged glass rod has always?

    (A) less electrons than protons

    (B) less electrons than neutrons

    (C) less protons than electrons

    (D) less neutrons than protons

    Ans. (C)

     

    28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding?s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?

    (A) B. G. Tilak

    (B) G. K. Gokhale

    (C) M. G. Ranade

    (D) Motilal Nehru

    Ans. (B)

     

    29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?

    (A) Falkland Current

    (B) Canary Current

    (C) Labrador Current

    (D) Gulf Stream

    Ans. (A)

    30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?

    (A) Chattisgarh

    (B) Madhya Pradesh

    (C) Orissa

    (D) Uttar Pradesh

    Ans. (B)

     

    31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?

    (A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only

    (B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only

    (C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only

    (D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa

    Ans. (C)

    32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?

    (A) Dutch

    (B) English

    (C) French

    (D) Portuguese

    Ans. (D)

    33. The efforts of who of the following led to the ?Age of Consent Act, 1891??

    (A) Rabindranath Tagore

    (B) M. G. Ranade

    (C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee

    (D) Mulbari

    Ans. (D)

    34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian

    National Congress?

    (A) Congress Socialist Party

    (B) Forward Bloc

    (C) Indian National Conference

    (D) Swaraj Party

    Ans. (B)

    35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?

    (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (B) Mahatma Gandhi

    (C) Rajendra Prasad

    (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

    Ans. (B)

    36. Who was the architect of the ?Drain Theory? and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?

    (A) Dadabhai Naoroji

    (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    (C) Abul Kalam Azad

    (D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt

    Ans. (A)

    37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?

    (A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district

    (B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha

    (C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission

    (D) Dandi March

    Ans. (D)

     

    38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is?

    (A) Oxygen

    (B) Nitrogen

    (C) Hydrogen

    (D) Carbon dioxide

    Ans. (B)

     

    39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?

    (A) Kathak

    (B) Chhau

    (C) Kathakali

    (D) Odissi

    Ans. (A)

     

    401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?

    (A) Tamil

    (B) Marathi

    (C) Malayalam

    (D) Konkani

    Ans. (C)

     

    41. Who is known as the ?Father of India?s missile programme??

    (A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

    (B) R. Santhanam

    (C) Raja Ramanna

    (D) Homi Bhabha

    Ans. (A)

     

    42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?

    (A) Sunil Gavaskar

    (B) PT. Usha

    (C) Prakash Padukone

    (D) Dhyan Chand

    Ans. (D)

     

    43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?

    (A) Erapalli Prasanna

    (B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar

    (C) Bishan Singh Bedi

    (D) Kapil Dev

    Ans. (D)

     

    44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?

    (A) Bangkok

    (B) Kuala Lumpur

    (C) New Delhi

    (D) Moscow

    Ans. (C)

     

    45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period?

    (A) 1951-56

    (B) 1952-57

    (C) 1947-52

    (D) 1950-55

    Ans. (A)

     

    46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately?

    (A) 1.67m

    (B) 1.33m

    (C) 2.00m

    (D) 1.83m

    Ans. (A)

     

    47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is?

    (A) PSK

    (B) BPSK

    (C) MSK

    (D) GMSK

    Ans. (D)

     

    48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to?

    (A) Refraction

    (B) Diffraction

    (C) Total internal reflection

    (D) Interference

    Ans. (C)

     

    49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?

    (A) Video bandwidth is large

    (B) Video signal takes longer to arrive

    (C) Electron emission takes time

    (D) All of the above.

    Ans. (C)

     

    50. Seismograph is used in the study of?

    (A) Moon

    (B) Earthquake

    (C) Floods

    (D) Tides

    Ans. (B)

     

    1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?

    ACE, FGH, ?, PON

    (A) KKK

    (B) JKI

    (C) HJH

    (D) IKL

    Ans. (A)

     

    2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?

    (A) Script

    (B) Pen

    (C) Paper

    (D) Book

    Ans. (B)

     

    3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?

    (A) Furniture

    (B) Forest

    (C) Fire

    (D) Carpenter

    Ans. (D)

     

    4. acme : mace :: alga: ?

    (A) glaa

    (B) gaal

    (C) laga

    (D) gala

    Ans. (D)

     

    5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?

    (A) UTOPTU

    (B) UOTUPT

    (C) TUOUTP

    (D) TUOTUP

    Ans. (D)

     

    6. ?Medicine? is related to ?Patient? in the same way as ?Education? is related to?

    (A) Teacher

    (B) School

    (C) Student

    (D) Tuition

    Ans. (C)

     

    7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series?

    S, V, Y, B, ?

    (A) C

    (B) D

    (C) E

    (D)G

    Ans. (C)

     

    8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?

    3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20

    (A) 11

    (B) 10

    (C) 8

    (D) 9

    Ans. (D)

     

    9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.

    AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

    (A) IYZ

    (B) HWX

    (C) IWX

    (D) JWX

    Ans. (C)

     

    10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?

    1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?

    (A) 48

    (C) 52

    (B) 49

    (D) 56

    Ans. (B)

     

    Directions?(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.

    11. (A) Bokaro

    (B) Jamshedpur

    (C) Bhilai

    (D) Agra

    Ans. (D)

     

    12. (A) January

    (B) February

    (C) July

    (D) December

    Ans. (B)

     

    13. (A) Bible

    (B) Panchsheel

    (C) Geeta

    (D) Quran

    Ans. (B)

     

    14. (A) Star

    (B) Sun

    (C) Sky

    (D) Moon

    Ans. (C)

     

    Directions?(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

    15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?

    (A) N

    (B) L

    (C) O

    (D) None of these

    Ans. (D)

     

    16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?

    (A) V

    (B) T

    (C) W

    (D) Y

    Ans. (B)

    17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?

    (A) V

    (B) X

    (C) W

    (D) I

    Ans. (C)

     

    Directions?(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

    18. (A) Green

    (B) Red

    (C) Colour

    (D) Orange

    Ans. (C)

     

    19. (A) Rabbit

    (B) Crocodile

    (C) Earthworm

    (D) Snail

    Ans. (A)

     

    20. (A) Polo

    (B) Chess

    (C) Ludo

    (D) Carrom

    Ans. (A)

     

    21. (A) Sun

    (B) Universe

    (C) Moon

    (D) Star

    Ans. (B)

     

    22. (A) Cheese

    (B) Milk

    (C) Curd

    (D) Ghee

    Ans. (B)

     

    23. (A) Carrot

    (B) Radish

    (C) Potato

    (D) Brinjal

    Ans. (D)

    24. In a certain code ?CONTRIBUTOR? is written as ?RTNOCIROTUB?. How is ?prohibition? written in that code?

    (A) NOITIBIHORP

    (B) IHORPBITION

    (C) ITIONBIHOTP

    (D) IHORPBNOITI

    Ans. (D)

    25. If ?CAT? and ?BOAT? are written as XZG and ?YLZG? respectively in a code language how is ?EGG? to be written in the same language?

    (A) VSS

    (B) URR

    (C) VTT

    (D) UTF

    Ans. (C)

    26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as?

    (A) CBIECD

    (B) CIBCED

    (C) CBICED

    (D) CIBECD

    Ans. (B)

    27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is?

    (A) 213310

    (B) 213301

    (C) 123301

    (D) 012334

    Ans. (A)

    28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?

    (A) Blue

    (B) Fish

    (C) Rain

    (D) Pink

    Ans. (C)

    29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?

    (A) East

    (B) West

    (C) North

    (D) South

    Ans. (B)

    30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram?s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?

    (A) East

    (B) West

    (C) North

    (D) South

    Ans. (D)

    31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?

    (A) Manish

    (B) Pushpa

    (C) Namita

    (D) Nageena

    Ans. (A)

    32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?

    (A) Meena

    (B) Rupali

    (C) Raj

    (D) None of these

    Ans. (C)

    33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said ?She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.? How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan?s mother?

    (A) Sister in law

    (B) Grand daughter

    (C) Daughter in law

    (D) None of these

    Ans. (B)

    34. If Amit? s father is Billoo? s father?s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?

    (A) Uncle?Nephew

    (B) Father?Daughter

    (C) Father?Son

    (D) Grandfather?Grandson

    Ans. (C)

    35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?

    (A) Tuesday

    (B) Earlier week?s Saturday

    (C) Wednesday

    (D) Monday

    Ans. (C)

    36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?

    (A) 2 : 20 a.m.

    (B) 3 : 30 a.m.

    (C) 3 : 55 p.m.

    (D) 3 : 20 p.m.

    Ans. (D)

    37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?

    (A) 44

    (B) 40

    (C) 50

    (D) 55

    Ans. (D)

    38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra?s position from the left?

    (A) 21st

    (B) 19th

    (C) 23rd

    (D) 20th

    Ans. (D)

     

    39. How many 5?s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?

    8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8

    (A) One

    (B) Two

    (C) Three

    (D) Four

    Ans. (A)

    40. How many 8?s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?

    6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6

    (A) One

    (B) Two

    (C) Three

    (D) Four

    Ans. (C)

     

    41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as?

    (A) MENOPM

    (B) MENOMP

    (C) NJOGPM

    (D) MNJOPM

    Ans. (D)

     

     

    42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded

    in the same manner as?

    (A) CJCEFQPYWC

    (B) CJGERQTYVG

    (C) CNCERQPCRG

    (D) GJGAVMTYVC

    Ans. (D)

    43. ?Air? is to ?Bird? as ?Water? is to ??..

    (A) Drink

    (B) Fish

    (C) Wash

    (D) Swim

    Ans. (B)

     

    44. ?Pencil? is to ?Write? as ?Knife? is to ???

    (A) Injure

    (B) Peel

    (C) Prick

    (D) Attack

    Ans. (B)

    45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?

    (A) 26

    (B) 32

    (C) 24

    (D) 35

    Ans. (D)

     

    46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?

    (A) 26

    (B) 12

    (C) 10

    (D) 33

    Ans. (B)

     

    47. ?Soldier? is related to ?Army? in the same way as ?Pupil? is related to ??.

    (A) Education

    (B) Teacher

    (C) Student

    (D) Class

    Ans. (D)

     

    48. ?Kilogram? is related to ?Quintal? in the same way as ?Paisa? is related to???

    (A) Coin

    (B) Money

    (C) Cheque

    (D) Rupee

    Ans. (D)

     

    49. ?Stammering? is to ?Speech? as Deafness is to ????

    (A) Ear

    (B) Hearing

    (C) Noise

    (D) Commotion

    Ans. (B)

     

    50. ?Guilt? is to ?Past? as ?Hope? is to ????

    (A) Present

    (B) Future

    (C) Today

    (D) Hopeless

    Ans. (B)

     

    FCI Management Trainee Accounts Question  Paper

     

     

    1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at?

    (A) Cost price

    (B) Market price

    (C) Cost or market price which ever is higher

    (D) Cost or market price which ever is lower

    Ans. (D)

     

    2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of?

    (A) Over statement of assets

    (B) Understatement of assets

    (C) Understatement of liabilities

    (D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts

    Ans. (B)

     

    3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to?

    (A) Accrual concept

    (B) Entity concept

    (C) Dual aspect concept

    (D) Money measurement concept

    Ans. (D)

     

    4. Balance in ?Nazrana?s a/c? in the books of lessee is shown in?

    (A) Landlords a/c

    (B) P&L a/c

    (C) Balance sheet assets side

    (D) Balance sheet liabilities side

    Ans. (C)

     

    5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on?

    (A) Cash price of the asset

    (B) Hire purchase price of the asset

    (C) Higher of the two

    (D) Lower of the two

    Ans. (A)

     

    6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under?

    (A) Asset accrued method

    (B) Total cash price method

    (C) Any of the two methods

    (D) None of these

    Ans. (C)

     

    7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-?

    (A) Rs. 16667

    (B) Rs. 20000

    (C) Rs. 25000

    (D) Rs. 33333

    Ans. (B)

     

    8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at?

    (A) Opening rate of exchange

    (B) Closing rate of exchange

    (C) Average rate of exchange

    (D) Rate applicable to debtors

    Ans. (B)

     

    9. If goods are transferred from ?X? department to ?Y? department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ?Y? department will be?

    (A) Rs. 4000

    (B) Rs. 5000

    (C) Rs. 6000

    (D) Rs. 3333

    Ans. (A)

     

    10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of?

    (A) Rs. 10000

    (B) Rs.6000

    (C) Rs. 4000

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (C)

     

    11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum?

    (A) 5 partners

    (B) 10 partners

    (C) 20 partners

    (D) Any number of partners

    Ans. (B)

     

    12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ?X?. If ?X? withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be?

    (A) Debited to his capital a/c

    (B) Credited to his drawing a/c

    (C) Credited to his current a/c

    (D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c

    Ans. (A)

     

    13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm?

    (A) Interest at 6% p.a.

    (B) Interest at 12% p.a.

    (C) Interest at 15% p.a.

    (D) No interest

    Ans. (A)

     

    14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be?

    (A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2

    (B) 4: 3 : 2: 1

    (C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (B)

     

    15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be?

    (A) 10:6:4

    (B) 6:10:4

    (C) 8:8:4

    (D) 9:7:4

    Ans. (D)

     

    16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill?

    (A) Rs.21000

    (B) Rs.9000

    (C) Rs. 15000

    (D) Rs. 6000

    Ans. (D)

     

    17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of?

    (A) Rs. 500000

    (C) Rs. 800000

    (B) Rs.600000

    (D) Rs. 375000

    Ans. (A)

     

    18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c?

    (A) Passage money

    (B) Freight

    (C) Primage

    (D) Address commission

    Ans. (D)

     

    19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.?

    (A) 1st April 1949

    (B) 1st April 1991

    (C) 1st April 1992

    (D) 1st April 1956

    Ans. (C)

     

    20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in?

    (A) Revenue Account

    (B) Balance Sheet

    (C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (B)

     

    21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of?

    (A) Realisation

    (B) Consistency

    (C) Conservatism

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (A)

     

    22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in?

    (A) Lowering the profit

    (B) Raising the profit

    (C) Raising the tax liability

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (B)

    23. Given,

    Total assets turnover 4

    Net Profits 10%

    Total Assets Rs. 50000

    Net profit will be?

    (A) Rs. 15000

    (B) Rs. 10000

    (C) Rs. 25000

    (D) Rs.20000

    Ans. (D)

    24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-

    (A) Board of directors

    (B) Members

    (C) Managing director

    (D) Company secretary

    Ans. (B)

     

    25. Bonus shares means shares issued to?

    (A) Workers

    (B) Existing equity shareholders

    (C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend

    (D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest

    Ans. (B)

    26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?

    (A) Stock

    (B) Plant

    (C) Loose tools

    (D) Goodwill

    Ans. (D)

     

    27. Cash from operations is equal to?

    (A) Net profit + increase in current assets

    (B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities

    (C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities

    (D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities

    Ans. (C)

    28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm?s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-

    (A) Rs. 30000

    (B) Rs. 20000

    (C) Rs. 25000

    (D) Rs. 40000

    Ans. (A)

    29. Which of the following is not a current liability?

    (A) Bank overdraft

    (B) Redeemable debentures

    (C) Account payable

    (D) Provision for bad debts

    Ans. (B)

     

    30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to?

    (A) 2%

    (B) 2.5%

    (C) 3%

    (D) 5%

    Ans. (B)

    31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?

    (A) 2: 1

    (C) 1: 1

    (B) 1: 2

    (D) None of these

    Ans. (C)

    32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by?

    (A) Peter Drucker

    (B) Herzberg

    (C) McGregor

    (D) Maslow

    Ans. (B)

    33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?

    (A) Autocratic

    (B) Democratic

    (C) Free rein

    (D) Participative

    Ans. (B)

    34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called?

    (A) Management

    (B) Coordination

    (C) Planning

    (D) Decision-making

    Ans. (C)

     

    35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called?

    (A) Line organisation

    (B) Chain organisation

    (C) Command organisation

    (D) All the above

    Ans. (D)

    36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called?

    (A) Management by objective

    (B) Management by exception

    (C) Management by crisis

    (D) Management by choice

    Ans. (B)

     

    37. Under delegation of authority?

    (A) Authority is given to subordinates

    (B) Authority flows from top to bottom

    (C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability

    (D) All the above happens

    Ans. (D)

    38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called?

    (A) Job specification

    (B) Job evaluation

    (C) Job analysis

    (D) Job description

    Ans. (C)

    39. In case of a private company?

    (A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares

    (B) The number of members is restricted

    (C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited

    (D) All of the above

    Ans. (D)

    40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than?

    (A) 1 Company

    (B) 7 Companies

    (C) 15 Companies

    (D) 20 Companies

    Ans. (C)

    41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a?

    (A) Public company

    (B) Any type of company

    (C) Private company

    (D) Private company subsidiary to a public company

    Ans. (C)

    42. Henry Fayol is known for?

    (A) Scientific management

    (B) Rationalisation

    (C) Industrial psychology

    (D) Principles of managements

    Ans. (D)

    43. The principle of unity of command? implies?

    (A) Unity of thought and action

    (B) Unity amongst subordinates

    (C) Instructions from staff authority

    (D) Instructions from line authority

    Ans. (D)

    44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be?

    (A) 1:1

    (B) 0.5: 1

    (C) 0.4: 1

    (D) None of the above

    Ans. (C)

    45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called?

    (A) Net working capital

    (B) Gross working capital

    (C) Deferred liabilities

    (D) Net worth

    Ans. (D)

     

    46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be?

    (A) Rs. 39000

    (B) Rs. 40000

    (C) Rs.41000

    (D) Rs. 44000

    Ans. (A)

     

    47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as?

    (A) An asset

    (B) A liability

    (C) An expense

    (D) A revenue

    Ans. (B)

     

    48. Which of the following is known as ?backbone of auditing??

    (A) Verification of assets

    (B) Internal check

    (C) Vouching

    (D) Internal audit

    Ans. (C)

     

    49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be?

    (A) Rs. 500

    (B) Rs.200

    (C) Rs. 250

    (D) Rs. 100

    Ans. (D)

     

    50. Sale of long term investments indicates?

    (A) A change in current assets

    (B) Application of funds

    (C) Increase in working capital

    (D) Source of funds

    Ans. (D)

     

    GK For FCI Assistant Job exam

    1. Which is the largest airport in the world?
    (A) Singapore Airport
    (B) The Kaulalumpur International Airport
    (C) Heathrow at London
    (D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia
    2. Prithvi is a?
    (A) Surface-to-air missile
    (B) Surface-to-surface missile
    (C) Air-to-surface missile
    (D) Air-to-air missile
    3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the cultivation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci sion?
    (A)Cargil
    (B) BASF
    (C) Monsanto
    (D) All of these
    4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on?
    (A) 8th September
    (B) 5th June
    (C) 15th August
    (D) 5th September
    5. Which was the first University to be established in the world?
    (A) Harvard University
    (B) Nalanda University
    (C) Oxford University
    (D) None of these
    6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through?
    (A)glass
    (B) vacuum
    (C)air
    (D) water
    7. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol?
    (A) Methanol
    (C) Kerosene
    (B) Ethanol
    (B) Butanol
    8. What is the name of the instrument used to measure blood pressure?
    (A) Barometer
    (B) Hygrometer
    (C) Hydrometer
    (D) Sphygmomanometre
    9. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got independence?
    (A) Attlee
    (C) Thatcher
    (B) Churchill
    (D) Wilson
    10. Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source?
    (A) Numismatics
    (B) Epigraphs
    (C) Rock paintings
    (D) Census reports
    11. What is not correct about a soft loan?
    1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
    2. It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent
    3. The world bank gives soft loans to developing countries for long-term capital
    projects
    (A)Only 1
    (B) Only 2
    (C)2and3
    (D) 1 and3
    12. Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by
    the naked eyes from the moon?
    (A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa
    (B) The Pyramids of Egypt
    (C) The Statue of Liberty, NewYork
    (D) The Great Wall of China
    13. Formal services of Credit do not include?
    (A) Self-help groups
    (B) Cooperatives
    (C) Employers
    (D) L.I.C.
    14. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to?
    1. Set up new factories
    2. Buy existing local companies
    3. Form partnerships with local companies
    4. Invest in companies with low turn over
    (A) 1,3 and 4
    (B) 2and3
    (C) 2,3and4
    (D) All of the above
    15. How many faces are there in an octahedron?
    (A)4
    (B)6
    (C)8
    (D) 12
    16. Night-blindness is caused by lackof which vitamin?
    (A) Vitamin A
    (B) Vitamin B
    (C) Vitamin C
    (D) Vitamin D
    17. The most abundant element in Earth?s atmosphere is?
    (A) Argon
    (C) Oxygen
    (B) Nitrogen
    (D) Krypton
    18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately?
    (A)2m
    (B) 1.88 m
    (C)1.67 m
    (D) 1.33 m
    19. Which is the richest soil among the following?
    (A) Black soil
    (B) Red soil
    (C) Laterite soil
    (D ) Alluvial soil
    20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the?
    (A) shape of earth
    (B) revolution of earth around the sun
    (C) rotation of earth on its axis
    (D) movements of the sun
    21. A person of which of the following blood group can receive blood of any group?
    (A)A
    (B)AB
    (C)B
    (D)0
    22. Evergreen type of forests are found in?
    (A) Equatorial climate
    (B) Monsoon climatic region
    (C) Desert regions
    (D) Mediterranean region
    23. What is the other name for River Gangas?
    (A) Sapthanadi
    (B) Bhageerathi
    (C) Savitri
    (D) Bhadravati
    24. The earth is?
    (A)Spherical
    (B)Elliptical
    (C)Oblate spheroid
    (D) Pralate spheroid
    25. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units?
    (A) Length, mass and velocity
    (B) Length, time and velocity
    (C) Mass, time and velocity
    (D) Length, time and mass
    26 Which of the following is / are the main agents of soil erosion?
    (A) Wind and water
    (B) Rocks
    (C) Sand
    (D) High temperature and humidity
    27. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of India?
    (A) Sharad Pawar
    (B) Ran Vilas Paswan
    (C) Shiv Raj Patil
    (D) None of these
    28. Monsoon is caused by?
    (A) Revolution of Earth
    (B) Movement of Clouds
    (C) Seasonal reversal of the winds
    (D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land temperature
    29. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet?
    (A) Omega
    (B) Sigma
    (C) Zeta
    (D) Chi
    30. Which is the birth place of Hitler?
    (A) Germany
    (B) Hungary
    (C) Austria
    (D) France
    31. Who elects President of India?
    (A) Lock Sabha
    (B) Rajya Sahha
    (C) People of India
    (D) Parliament and State Assemblies
    32. Which country is called the ?Land of Cakes??
    (A)Britain
    (B) Spain
    (C)France
    (D) Scotland
    33. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas?
    (A) Kathasaritsagar
    (B) Meghdutam
    (C) Raghuvansham
    (D) Pushpavan Vikasam
    34. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential elections if?
    (A) he himself is a candidate
    (B) he is yet to prove his majority in the State legislature
    (C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature
    (D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
    35. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house?
    (A) Whenever he desires
    (B) Whenever the house desires
    (C) In the event of equality of votes
    (D) Whenever his party directs
    36. which of the following is not a cash crop?
    (A)Jute
    (B) Paddy
    (C)Cashew-nut
    (D) Rubber
    37. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the BinLaden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia?
    (A) Star Asia
    (B) B. B. C. Asia
    (C) Al Jazeera
    (D) Khaleed Times
    38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of?
    (A) Nepal
    (B) U. K.
    (C) Spain
    (D) Japan
    39. Who was Karl Marx?s main collaborator on his famous works?
    (A) V.I. Lenin
    (B) Max Weber
    (C) Fredrick Engels
    (D) Joseph Stalin
    40. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth
    Games?
    (A) South Korea
    (B) Japan
    (C)Malaysia
    (D) China
    Answers :
    1    D
    2    B
    3    C
    4    A
    5    B
    6    A
    7    B
    8    D
    9    A
    10    C
    11    B
    12    D
    13    C
    14    B
    15    C
    16    A
    17    B
    18    C
    19    D
    20    C
    21    B
    22    A
    23    B
    24    C
    25    A
    26    A
    27    A
    28    D
    29    A
    30    C
    31    D
    32    D
    33    A
    34    C
    35    C
    36    B
    37    C
    38    D
    39    C
    40    C

     

     

2009-2016 downloadmela.com. All rights reserved.